An interesting article on this topic (
link) by Shahed Sadullah:
Quote:
|
Originally Posted by Sadullah In the first One-day International as India were slowly sinking towards defeat, Pakistan’s captain Inzamam-ul-Haq played a ball to mid off, took barely a step out of his crease without any intention of taking a run, when the mid-off fielder threw the ball towards the batsman rather than the stumps.
Inzamam stopped the ball with his bat and took a step back into his crease. The Indians appealed vociferously and since there had been a technical infringement, Umpire Taufel rightly ruled Inzamam out obstructing the field. [...]
It is extremely disappointing that Dravid thought it fit to go ahead with the appeal and one would perhaps not be wrong in feeling that had the Pakistanis been 125 for seven at that juncture, the appeal would probably not have taken place. |
And Inzamam's own column on this subject (
link):
Quote:
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Originally Posted by Inzamam The Peshawar dismissal was in fact in direct contrast to my run-out dismissal in the Faisalabad Test match against England. If I had not brought my bat in front of the ball, it could have hit my body instead. |
He may have a point y'know - someone chucks the ball
at him:
i) he moves out the way to take evasive action - he is given out (wrongly);
ii) he tries to stop the ball with the bat to take evasive/preventative action - he is given out (corectly).
In both cases, he had no intention of taking a run; in both cases, the ball could quite possibly have hit him and in both cases, he took evasive/preventative action - why then is the outcome, as per the Laws of the game, different in the two scenarios? Is there a contradiction in the Laws?